I think they also did a YU simulplay.
And some people tried to do a Paper Mario Simulplay, though I don't remember what even happened to it.

Also Tales of Phantasia



Weren't you always old?

This post has been edited by DustyHaru: Mar 15 2011, 08:50 PM

No, you're thinking of Ash.

Paper Mario simuplay got kinda ignored after a bit because some people were being too slow and others couldn't get the game to actually run.

I was told my local library is shit, so I decided to check in my own way by seeing what sort of higher education books were there. I pretty much found jack shit.

In fact, I found a book that claimed pi was rational.

Spring break has almost been the death of me. I feel like I'm getting worse and worse at managing my workload, and when I (reluctantly) resort to blaming it on video games, I realize that that really isn't it.

I just have to hold out for two more months until I can get back on my feet again.

This post has been edited by Hayate: Mar 18 2011, 02:46 AM

Fight fight fight!

I have to come back to take a class for two weeks after school lets out at the end of the year. Sucks.

I have to take a long take home Math History exam this Spring Break. Then again I can knock it out quickly and then study on my own to be at a more stable level in all of my courses.

Anyone want to do a Megaman Legends simuplay when I'm on break?

Watching them play the game on the Capcom DevRoom is making me want to play it again. And I've played it like a thousand times, so I thought it'd be fun to do it with more people.

I'll do my best to go on IRC more often as well.

Happy Birthday Sara~

Happy Birthday Rosetta/Saraperson.

Thanks everyone~

Bottom of Page 5 of this:
http://www.math.rutgers.edu/~zeilberg/mama...rimPDF/real.pdf

Claims that pi does not really exist, and (basically) that the only thing we can do is talk about what rational numbers are less than and greater than it. Also, there are finitely many rational numbers (but a huge finite number), so there are finitely many such intervals that you can talk about pi being in.

Mind that this guy, though, isn't a crank. He's a professor at Rutgers, just one with a strong bias towards computers and thus discrete (as opposed to continuous) things.

Well, if you look at mathematical history, a lot of people make odd implications like these.

For example, one mathematician claimed that 3/0 was infinity and that 3/-1 was larger than infinity. Or that some number n divided by 0 was 0. Doesn't mean anything about intelligence moreso than that mathematics isn't something humans are born to do. What he says does sound interesting; however I do believe irrational numbers exist. However yes, it is quite hard to believe such a thing; it implies that there are infinitely many numbers between two finite numbers. Then again rational numbers almost imply the same thing. Irrational numbers just make it more obvious.

It also seems he bashes the proof of the idea that there are infinitely many primes. I was thinking along those lines too while reading this paper. However, the proof doesn't in itself just say that. It also says that its impossible to add 1 to any number and the next number has a prime factor in both of those numbers. So you have to either assume that the number itself is prime or it is composite and does not hold any of the primes you mentioned.

This post has been edited by Elnendil: Mar 26 2011, 12:37 AM

What he says isn't (as far as I know) mathematically inconsistent. He doesn't accept that there's always a larger number, so the proof that there's always a larger prime (which requires, given primes p_1, p_2 ..., p_n, that p_1*p_2*...*p_n exists) just doesn't work.

True, he just takes to account that there are a finite amount of numbers so there's a finite amount of primes, but then questions arise when looking at the patterns we know from primes:

#1: What is the last number, if there is only a finite amount of numbers?
#2: Is the last number prime or composite? At the very least he should agree that when you add 1 to a number, its prime factors change completely. So if you add 1 to finally hit the final number in this "finite" set, does it become a prime or a product of all of the primes?